[Dec-2023] CS0-003 Exam Dumps, CS0-003 Practice Test Questions
Attested CS0-003 Dumps PDF Resource [2023]
NEW QUESTION # 90
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?
- A. OWASP
- B. MITRE ATT&CK
- C. Diamond Model Of Intrusion Analysis
- D. OSSTMM
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and dat
a. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .
The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.
NEW QUESTION # 91
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server Which of the following should the analyst do first to preserve evidence''
- A. Back up all log files and audit trails
- B. Create a system timeline
- C. Restore damaged data from the backup media
- D. Monitor user access to compromised systems
Answer: A
Explanation:
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server. The first step that the analyst should do to preserve evidence is to back up all log files and audit trails. This will ensure that the analyst has a copy of the original data that can be used for analysis and verification. Backing up the log files and audit trails will also prevent any tampering or modification of the evidence by the attacker or other parties. The other options are not the first steps or may alter or destroy the evidence. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16; https://www.nist.gov/publications/guide-collection-and-preservation-digital-evidence
NEW QUESTION # 92
A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with. Which of the following is the best mitigation technique?
- A. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall
- B. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
- C. Geoblock the offending source country
- D. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Geoblocking is the best mitigation technique for unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with, as it can prevent any potential attacks or data breaches from that country. Geoblocking is the practice of restricting access to websites or services based on geographic location, usually by blocking IP addresses associated with a certain country or region. Geoblocking can help reduce the overall attack surface and protect against malicious actors who may be trying to exploit vulnerabilities or steal information. The other options are not as effective as geoblocking, as they may not block all the possible sources of the scanning activity, or they may not address the root cause of the problem. Official References:
https://www.blumira.com/geoblocking/
https://www.avg.com/en/signal/geo-blocking
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following would help to minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations?
- A. SOAR
- B. QVVASP
- C. OSSTMM
- D. SIEM
Answer: A
Explanation:
SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation, and response, which is a term that describes a set of tools, technologies, or platforms that can help streamline, standardize, and automate security operations and incident response processes and tasks. SOAR can help minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, human errors, response time, or complexity. SOAR can also help enhance collaboration, coordination, efficiency, or effectiveness of security operations and incident response teams.
NEW QUESTION # 94
A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated:
Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1
The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.
Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.
Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23
Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.
Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362
NEW QUESTION # 95
A security analyst discovers an ongoing ransomware attack while investigating a phishing email. The analyst downloads a copy of the file from the email and isolates the affected workstation from the network. Which of the following activities should the analyst perform next?
- A. Shut down the email server and quarantine it from the network.
- B. Wipe the computer and reinstall software
- C. Acquire a bit-level image of the affected workstation.
- D. Search for other mail users who have received the same file.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Searching for other mail users who have received the same file is the best activity to perform next, as it helps to identify and contain the scope of the ransomware attack and prevent further damage. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a system and demands payment for their decryption. Ransomware can spread through phishing emails that contain malicious attachments or links that download the ransomware. By searching for other mail users who have received the same file, the analyst can alert them not to open it, delete it from their inboxes, and scan their systems for any signs of infection. The other activities are not as urgent or effective as searching for other mail users who have received the same file, as they do not address the immediate threat of ransomware spreading or affecting more systems. Wiping the computer and reinstalling software may restore the functionality of the affected workstation, but it will also erase any evidence of the ransomware attack and make recovery of encrypted files impossible. Shutting down the email server and quarantining it from the network may stop the delivery of more phishing emails, but it will also disrupt normal communication and operations for the organization. Acquiring a bit-level image of the affected workstation may preserve the evidence of the ransomware attack, but it will not help to stop or remove the ransomware or decrypt the files.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?
- A. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
- B. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
- C. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
- D. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event
Answer: D
Explanation:
The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.
NEW QUESTION # 97
An organization was compromised, and the usernames and passwords of all em-ployees were leaked online.
Which of the following best describes the remedia-tion that could reduce the impact of this situation?
- A. Multifactor authentication
- B. System hardening
- C. Password changes
- D. Password encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as a password, a PIN, a fingerprint, or a one-time code. MFA can reduce the impact of a credential leak because even if the attackers have the usernames and passwords of the employees, they would still need another factor to access the organization's systems and resources. Password changes, system hardening, and password encryption are also good security practices, but they do not address the immediate threat of compromised credentials.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives, [What Is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)?]
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan?
- A. Determine the site to be used during a disaster
C Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process - B. Identity applications to be run during a disaster
- C. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable.
NEW QUESTION # 99
An analyst notices there is an internal device sending HTTPS traffic with additional characters in the header to a known-malicious IP in another country. Which of the following describes what the analyst has noticed?
- A. PHP traversal
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. Beaconing
- D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 100
A managed security service provider is having difficulty retaining talent due to an increasing workload caused by a client doubling the number of devices connected to the network. Which of the following
would best aid in decreasing the workload without increasing staff?
- A. SOAR
- B. EDR
- C. XDR
- D. SIEM
Answer: A
Explanation:
SOAR stands for Security Orchestration, Automation and Response, which is a set of features that can help security teams manage, prioritize and respond to security incidents more efficiently and effectively. SOAR can help decrease the workload without increasing staff by automating repetitive tasks, streamlining workflows, integrating different tools and platforms, and providing actionable insights and recommendations. SOAR is also one of the current trends that CompTIA CySA+ covers in its exam objectives. Official Reference:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
NEW QUESTION # 101
An analyst needs to provide recommendations based on a recent vulnerability scan:
Which of the following should the analyst recommend addressing to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified?
- A. SMB use domain SID to enumerate users
- B. SSL certificate cannot be trusted
- C. Scan not performed with admin privileges
- D. SYN scanner
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is because scanning without admin privileges can limit the scope and accuracy of the vulnerability scan, and potentially miss some critical vulnerabilities that require higher privileges to detect. According to the OWASP Vulnerability Management Guide1, "scanning without administrative privileges will result in a large number of false negatives and an incomplete scan". Therefore, the analyst should recommend addressing this issue to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified.
NEW QUESTION # 102
An organization would like to ensure its cloud infrastructure has a hardened configuration. A requirement is to create a server image that can be deployed with a secure template. Which of the following is the best resource to ensure secure configuration?
- A. OWASP Top Ten
- B. PCI DSS
- C. ISO 27001
- D. CIS Benchmarks
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is
A) CIS Benchmarks. CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software. They are developed by a global community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently1
PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001 are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks
NEW QUESTION # 103
There are several reports of sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services. The company would like to improve its security posture against this threat. Which of the following security controls would best support the company in this scenario?
- A. Deploy mobile device management
- B. Increase password complexity standards
- C. Improve employee training and awareness
- D. Implement step-up authentication for administrators
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best security control to implement against sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services is to improve employee training and awareness. Employee training and awareness can help educate employees on the risks and consequences of using file sharing services for sensitive information, as well as the policies and procedures for handling such information securely and appropriately. Employee training and awareness can also help foster a security culture and encourage employees to report any incidents or violations of information security.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Approximately 100 employees at your company have received a Phishing email. AS a security analyst. you have been tasked with handling this Situation.
Review the information provided and determine the following:
1. HOW many employees Clicked on the link in the Phishing email?
2. on how many workstations was the malware installed?
3. what is the executable file name of the malware?
Answer:
Explanation:
see the answer in explanation for this task
Explanation:
1. How many employees clicked on the link in the phishing email?
According to the email server logs, 25 employees clicked on the link in the phishing email.
2. On how many workstations was the malware installed?
According to the file server logs, the malware was installed on 15 workstations.
3. What is the executable file name of the malware?
The executable file name of the malware is svchost.EXE.
Answers
1. 25
2. 15
3. svchost.EXE
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following would help an analyst to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address?
- A. Join an information sharing and analysis center specific to the company's industry.
- B. Upload threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format.
- C. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipleline.
- D. Review threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The best option to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address is C: Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline.
Data enrichment is the process of adding more information and context to raw data, such as IP addresses, by using external sources. Data enrichment can help analysts to gain more insights into the nature and origin of the threats they face, and to prioritize and respond to them accordingly. Data enrichment for IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) means that the IPS can use enriched data to block or alert on malicious traffic based on various criteria, such as geolocation, reputation, threat intelligence, or behavior. By adding data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline, analysts can leverage the IPS's capabilities to filter out known-malicious IP addresses before they reach the SIEM, or to tag them with relevant information for further analysis. This can save time and resources for the analysts, and improve the accuracy and efficiency of the SIEM.
The other options are not as effective or efficient as data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Joining an information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) specific to the company's industry (A) can provide valuable threat intelligence and best practices, but it may not be timely or comprehensive enough to cover all possible malicious IP addresses. Uploading threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format (B) can help the IPS to identify and block malicious IP addresses based on standardized indicators of compromise, but it may require manual or periodic updates and integration with the SIEM. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert (D) can help analysts to verify and contextualize the malicious IP addresses, but it may be too late or too slow to prevent or mitigate the damage. Therefore, C is the best option among the choices given.
NEW QUESTION # 106
The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan:
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan?
- A. The vulnerable parameter ID hccp://l72.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned
- B. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt
- C. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt
- D. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe
Answer: C
Explanation:
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user's browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2.
NEW QUESTION # 107
A SOC analyst recommends adding a layer of defense for all endpoints that will better protect against external threats regardless of the device's operating system. Which of the following best meets this requirement?
- A. CASB
- B. SOAR
- C. EDR
- D. SIEM
Answer: C
Explanation:
EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a layer of defense that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can protect against external threats regardless of the device's operating system, as it can detect and respond to attacks based on behavioral analysis and threat intelligence. EDR is also one of the tools that CompTIA CySA+ covers in its exam objectives. Official Reference:
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/cysa-plus-ia-levels/
NEW QUESTION # 108
When starting an investigation, which of the following must be done first?
- A. Seize all related evidence
- B. Notify law enforcement
- C. Interview the witnesses
- D. Secure the scene
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The first thing that must be done when starting an investigation is to secure the scene. Securing the scene involves isolating and protecting the area where the incident occurred, as well as any potential evidence or witnesses. Securing the scene can help prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence, as well as any interference or obstruction of the investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 109
An older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. Which of the following factors would an analyst most likely communicate as the reason for this escalation?
- A. CVSS
- B. Asset value
- C. Scope
- D. Weaponization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Weaponization is a factor that describes how an adversary develops or acquires an exploit or payload that can take advantage of a vulnerability and deliver a malicious effect. Weaponization can increase the severity or impact of a vulnerability, as it makes it easier or more likely for an attacker to exploit it successfully and cause damage or harm. Weaponization can also indicate the level of sophistication or motivation of an attacker, as well as the availability or popularity of an exploit or payload in the cyber threat landscape. In this case, an older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. This indicates that weaponization was the reason for this escalation.
NEW QUESTION # 110
An analyst is evaluating the following vulnerability report:
Which of the following vulnerability report sections provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs?
- A. Vulnerability
- B. Payloads
- C. Metrics
- D. Profile
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Metrics.
The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.
The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the affected resources.
In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.
The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.
Reference:
[1] CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
[2] Common Vulnerability Scoring System SIG
[3] CVSS v3.1 Specification Document
[4] CVSS v3.1 User Guide
[5] How to Read a Vulnerability Report - Security Boulevard
NEW QUESTION # 111
A Chief Information Officer wants to implement a BYOD strategy for all company laptops and mobile phones. The Chief Information Security Officer is concerned with ensuring all devices are patched and running some sort of protection against malicious software. Which of the following existing technical controls should a security analyst recommend to best meet all the requirements?
- A. EDR
- B. NAC
- C. Port security
- D. Segmentation
Answer: A
Explanation:
EDR stands for endpoint detection and response, which is a type of security solution that monitors and protects all devices that are connected to a network, such as laptops and mobile phones. EDR can help to ensure that all devices are patched and running some sort of protection against malicious software by providing continuous visibility, threat detection, incident response, and remediation capabilities. EDR can also help to enforce security policies and compliance requirements across all devices .
NEW QUESTION # 112
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam, also known as CS0-003, is a highly respected and in-demand certification in the field of cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam is designed to validate the skills of professionals who are responsible for detecting, preventing, and responding to cybersecurity threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is designed to equip candidates with the knowledge and skills necessary to analyze data and identify potential cyber threats, as well as develop and implement effective cybersecurity strategies.
Latest CS0-003 Actual Free Exam Questions Updated 169 Questions: https://exam-hub.prepawayexam.com/CompTIA/braindumps.CS0-003.ete.file.html