Free Sample Questions to Practice ASIS-PSP Certification Test Engine [Dec-2025]
2025 Valid ASIS-PSP Real Exam Questions, practice Physical Security Professional
ASIS-PSP certification exam is considered to be one of the most challenging certifications in the field of physical security. It is a rigorous, four-hour exam that tests the candidate's knowledge of various security principles, practices, and technologies. ASIS-PSP exam is based on the Body of Knowledge of the ASIS Physical Security Professional Guide, which covers various topics such as risk assessment, crime prevention, security technology, and emergency management.
Understanding functional and technical aspects of Physical Security Professional Business Principles and Practices
The following will be discussed in ASIS PSP exam dumps:
- Vulnerability, danger, and effect appraisals
- Quantitative and subjective danger appraisals
- Develop, oversee, or lead the security hazard appraisal measure
- Potential security dangers (e.g., “all perils,” crime, illegal intimidation, noteworthy)
NEW QUESTION # 140
The long-term (more than 60 days) process of restoration activities after an emergency or disaster that returns the organization to its pre-event condition is called:
- A. Business continuity
- B. Business resumption
- C. Business healing
- D. Business recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Business resumption refers to the long-term process (typically more than 60 days) of returning the organization to full, normal operations after a disruption. It follows the earlier stages of emergency response and business recovery and focuses on rebuilding systems and restoring service levels.
Business continuity (A) is a broader concept that includes all planning efforts.
Business recovery (B) focuses on short-term, interim operations.
Business healing (D) is not a formal term in continuity planning.
References:
ASIS International - Business Continuity Guidelines
PSP Study Guide - Emergency Management and Recovery Phases
NEW QUESTION # 141
A set of unwanted instructions executed on a computer and resulting in a variety of effects is called:
- A. Worm
- B. All of the above
- C. Bug
- D. Virus
Answer: B
Explanation:
A virus is a type of malicious software that attaches itself to legitimate files and spreads when those files are executed.
A worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself to spread to other computers without needing to attach to a host file.
A bug refers to an error or flaw in software, but in the context of this question (malicious instructions causing effects), it can contribute to vulnerabilities exploited by malware.
Since all these can involve sets of unwanted instructions leading to harmful effects, "All of the above" is the most accurate answer.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Cybersecurity Threats and Malware Types
ASIS POA Manual - Information Security and System Integrity
NEW QUESTION # 142
When developing a request for proposal (RFP), a specification that requires bidders to satisfy overall system effectiveness measure is referred to as:
- A. Cost-based
- B. Results-based
- C. Performance-based
- D. Feature-based
Answer: C
Explanation:
A performance-based specification defines what the system must achieve (e.g., detection rate, response time), without specifying how to achieve it. This allows vendors flexibility in choosing technologies that meet required outcomes.
* B (Feature-based) and C (Results-based) are loosely defined or incorrect terms in procurement standards.
* D (Cost-based) focuses on budget, not system performance.
References:PSP Study Guide - RFP and System Specification TypesPOA Manual - Procurement and Performance-Based Contracting
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which law concerns the rights, duties, and penalties of individuals in their relationship with each other?
- A. Statutes suit
- B. Procedural law
- C. Substantive law
- D. Constructive law
Answer: C
Explanation:
Substantive law defines the legal relationship between individuals, including rights, duties, and legal obligations. It governs how people behave in society and outlines the legal consequences for certain actions.
Procedural law (A) refers to the methods and processes for enforcing substantive laws (e.g., court procedures).
Statutes suit (B) and Constructive law (D) are not standard legal classifications.
References:
ASIS PSP Study Guide - Legal Framework in Physical Security
POA Manual - Understanding Substantive vs. Procedural Law
NEW QUESTION # 144
Successful security design recognizes technological developments and integrates:
- A. Threats, operational factors, and likelihood of occurrence
- B. Operational factors, organizational needs, and the human element
- C. Architectural aspects, security systems, and operational factors
- D. Adversary sequence diagrams, system specifications, and work breakdown structure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Effective security design must balance technological advances with operational realities, organizational priorities, and human behavior. This holistic approach ensures the system is usable, sustainable, and aligned with company goals.
A (Adversary diagrams) and B (Threats and likelihood) are analytical tools, not integration principles.
D omits the critical "human element," which affects usability and compliance.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Security Design Principles
POA Manual - Integrated Security Planning and Human Factors
NEW QUESTION # 145
What incorporate a detection system, which can eliminate concerns over water damage and false activation of the system?
- A. Pre-action system
- B. Discovery system
- C. Exposure
- D. Post-action system
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pre-action sprinkler systems are designed to prevent accidental water discharge. These systems include a detection component (such as smoke or heat detectors) that must activate before the water enters the pipes.
They are often used in areas where water damage would be catastrophic (e.g., data centers, museums).
Discovery system (A), Exposure (B), and Post-action system (C) are not standard terms in fire suppression.
"Post-action system" is incorrect; the correct terminology is "pre-action system." References:
ASIS POA Manual - Fire Suppression Technologies
PSP Study Guide - Sprinkler and Water-Based Suppression Systems
NEW QUESTION # 146
What involves walking or riding a given route to observe the condition of the facility?
- A. Patrol duty
- B. None of the above
- C. Posts
- D. Reserves
Answer: A
Explanation:
Patrol duty involves moving through assigned routes or areas to monitor activity, detect irregularities, and observe the general condition of the facility. Patrolling can be conducted on foot or by vehicle and is a fundamental component of proactive security operations.
Posts (B) are stationary assignments.
Reserves (C) are backup personnel.
"None of the above" (D) is incorrect because patrol duty is the accurate answer.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Security Operations and Patrol Methods
PSP Study Guide - Security Personnel Deployment
NEW QUESTION # 147
Advice commonly purchased from consultant consists of which of the following information?
- A. All of the above
- B. Number, quantity, and use of security personnel
- C. Alternatives in security hardware
- D. Direction and content of security policies and procedures
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security consultants are often retained to provide strategic input on staffing needs, policy design, and technology integration. Their advice helps organizations make informed decisions regarding the deployment of personnel, the structure of policies, and the selection of physical and electronic security systems.
References:
ASIS International, POA Manual, Chapter: Security Consulting and Contracting ASIS PSP Study Guide, Domain 2 and
NEW QUESTION # 148
Electromechanical and electromagnetic locks are considered fail-safe if they:
- A. Can be deactivated remotely by the fire alarm system
- B. Resist tampering
- C. Remain locked when the power is removed
- D. Remain unlocked when the power is removed
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fail-safe locks are designed to unlock automatically when power is removed. This ensures people can exit during emergencies such as fire alarms or power outages. It is a critical safety requirement in most building codes.
A may be true for integrated systems but doesn't define fail-safe.
B describes fail-secure, which keeps the door locked during power failure.
D (Tamper resistance) relates to durability, not fail-safe function.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Locking Systems and Safety Protocols
POA Manual - Electromechanical Locking Standards
NEW QUESTION # 149
A change review board generally consists of:
- A. A program manager, a customer representative, and local officials
- B. A project manager, an architect, and contractors
- C. Representatives from manufacturers and subcontractors
- D. Representatives from each of the project's primary partners
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Change Review Board (CRB) is typically composed of key stakeholders representing the major interests involved in a project-engineering, operations, security, IT, procurement, and other relevant departments.
This cross-functional group ensures that proposed changes are reviewed, justified, and approved collaboratively.
A, C, and D list some roles, but they don't fully represent the project's key partners in a typical governance model.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Project Management and Governance
POA Manual - Change Control and Implementation Oversight
NEW QUESTION # 150
A primary ingredient that represents the loss prevention specialist's opportunity to reduce theft is called:
- A. Reduced Pilfering
- B. Confusion
- C. Low deterrence
- D. Common denominator
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 151
Business continuity is a two-stage process, ____________ is the first stage, ____________ is the second.
- A. business continuity, business recovery
- B. business continuity, business resources
- C. business recovery, business resumption
- D. business recovery, business continuity
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 152
Testing designed to determine whether a system is functional, has adequate sensitivity, and meets design and performance objectives accurately describes which of the following?
- A. Factory acceptance testing
- B. Site acceptance testing
- C. Reliability performance testing
- D. Equipment performance testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
Site Acceptance Testing (SAT) verifies that a system has been installed properly and functions as intended in the actual operating environment. It checks for compliance with design specifications, performance standards, and functional reliability under real-world conditions.
A (Factory Acceptance Testing) occurs before delivery at the manufacturer's site.
B (Reliability testing) focuses on system stability over time.
C (Equipment performance testing) is narrower and usually component-level.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Security Systems Implementation and Validation
POA Manual - Testing and Commissioning of Security Systems
NEW QUESTION # 153
When using ____________, computers must ensure that there is no traffic on the network before they are allowed to transmit information.
- A. Buses
- B. None of the above
- C. File Transfer protocol
- D. Ethernet protocol
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 154
__________ is internationally causing fear of imminent harmful or offensive touching but without touching or physical contact.
- A. Stabbing
- B. Battering
- C. None of the above
- D. Assault
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 155
A person who already knows and understands the basics of loss prevention and security is known as:
- A. Review personnel
- B. None of the above
- C. Supportive person
- D. Engaged liaison
Answer: B
Explanation:
The description in the question refers to a "qualified" or "trained" individual in security or loss prevention, but none of the answer choices-Engaged liaison, Review personnel, Supportive person-specifically identify a person already knowledgeable in loss prevention and security. Therefore, "None of the above" is the correct choice as it best fits the context.
Engaged liaison (A) refers to someone facilitating coordination, not necessarily with security knowledge.
Review personnel (B) and Supportive person (C) are too generic and do not accurately define a trained security professional.
References:
ASIS PSP Study Guide - Roles in Security Personnel
Protection of Assets Manual - Qualifications and Training in Security
NEW QUESTION # 156
A legal research generally involves locating:
- A. related articles in professional journals
- B. the applicable case law
- C. the applicable statute
- D. All of the above
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 157
What is the authorized physical invasion of property or remaining on property after permission has been rescinded?
- A. Prosecution
- B. Trespass
- C. None of the above
- D. Verdict
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 158
The term used to express the output of a light source is called a:
- A. Lumen
- B. Pixel
- C. Watt
- D. Fresnel
Answer: A
Explanation:
Lumen is the unit used to measure the luminous flux or total amount of visible light emitted by a source. It quantifies brightness and is crucial in lighting design for security applications.
A (Pixel) relates to image resolution.
B (Watt) measures energy consumption, not light output.
D (Fresnel) refers to a type of lens used to focus or direct light.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Lighting Measurement and Application
POA Manual - Lighting Design for Security
NEW QUESTION # 159
For typical CCTV surveillance, which of the following common surfaces has the lowest reflectance?
- A. Asphalt
- B. A red brick building
- C. A snow-covered field
- D. Dry, sandy soil
Answer: A
Explanation:
Among the listed options, asphalt has the lowest reflectance. CCTV performance depends on lighting and surface reflectivity.
Snow (A) has very high reflectance, sometimes exceeding 80%.
Sandy soil (B) and red bricks (D) reflect more light than asphalt.
Asphalt, being dark and non-reflective, absorbs more light, making it harder for cameras to capture detail unless well illuminated.
References:
PSP Study Guide - CCTV and Lighting Integration
POA Manual - Surveillance System Design
NEW QUESTION # 160
An event that is possible but uncertain in terms of occurrence or that is likely to happen as an adjunct to other events is called:
- A. Emergency response
- B. Critical processes
- C. Conditional delegation
- D. Contingent
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 161
Which approach is dealt with terrorists' personalities, their recruitment, and their induction into terrorist organizations, beliefs, attitudes, motivations and careers?
- A. Violence Approach
- B. Physiological Approach
- C. Criminal approach
- D. Multifactor Approach
Answer: D
Explanation:
The multifactor approach examines terrorism through multiple dimensions, including psychological, sociological, ideological, and organizational factors. It analyzes how individuals are recruited, indoctrinated, and motivated within terrorist networks. This is key in understanding the behavioral patterns and lifecycle of a terrorist.
References:
ASIS International, Protection of Assets (POA), Chapter: Terrorism
ASIS PSP Study Guide, Domain 1: Threat and Vulnerability Assessment
NEW QUESTION # 162
Contingency planning is the result of which four major components?
- A. basic planning, crisis management, business recovery, business resumption
- B. emergency response, crisis management, pressure devices, risk analysis
- C. emergency response, crisis management, business recovery, business resumption
- D. under investigation, crisis management, business recovery, pressure devices
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
Contingency planning in security and business continuity comprises four key components:
Emergency Response - immediate action to protect life and assets.
Crisis Management - command, communication, and decision-making during crises.
Business Recovery - restoring critical functions temporarily.
Business Resumption - restoring full, normal operations post-disruption.
Other options include irrelevant terms such as "pressure devices" or "under investigation," which are not core to contingency planning.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Emergency and Continuity Planning
PSP Study Guide - Contingency and Disaster Recovery Planning
NEW QUESTION # 163
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ASIS-PSP certification exam is open to security professionals who have at least five years of experience in the field of physical security. Candidates must also have a high school diploma or equivalent to be eligible for the exam. Physical Security Professional Exam certification is valid for three years, after which candidates must recertify by earning continuing education units (CEUs) or by retaking the exam.
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